أسئلة CPA التدريبية المجانية

المادة: المحاسبة المالية وإعداد التقارير

السؤال 1 من 15

An entity reports revenues of $8,400,000, cost of goods sold of $5,100,000, selling expenses of $960,000, a loss on sale of equipment of $140,000, interest expense of $310,000, and a loss from discontinued operations of $700,000 before tax. What is income from continuing operations before tax?

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اقرأ الأسئلة وشروحاتها
  1. السؤال 1

    المادة: المحاسبة المالية وإعداد التقارير

    An entity reports revenues of $8,400,000, cost of goods sold of $5,100,000, selling expenses of $960,000, a loss on sale of equipment of $140,000, interest expense of $310,000, and a loss from discontinued operations of $700,000 before tax. What is income from continuing operations before tax?

    1. $1,190,000
    2. $1,890,000
    3. $2,030,000
    4. $2,340,000
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    • B. $1,890,000
    8,400,000 - 5,100,000 - 960,000 - 140,000 - 310,000 = $1,890,000. The loss on sale of equipment is a peripheral transaction but still belongs in continuing operations; only the discontinued operation is excluded and reported net of tax below this line.
  2. السؤال 2

    المادة: المحاسبة المالية وإعداد التقارير

    A company had 2,000,000 shares outstanding on January 1. It issued 800,000 shares on April 1 and declared a two-for-one stock split on October 1. What is the weighted average number of shares outstanding for the year?

    1. 5,200,000
    2. 5,600,000
    3. 3,300,000
    4. 2,600,000
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    • A. 5,200,000
    The split is treated as though it occurred at the beginning of the period, so all earlier shares are restated. (4,000,000 x 3/12) + (5,600,000 x 9/12) = 1,000,000 + 4,200,000 = 5,200,000 shares.
  3. السؤال 3

    المادة: المحاسبة المالية وإعداد التقارير

    Which disposal qualifies for reporting as a discontinued operation?

    1. The sale of one of twelve substantially similar retail stores, the remaining eleven continuing to trade.
    2. The sale of a warehouse that has become surplus following an improvement in distribution routes.
    3. The disposal of manufacturing equipment at a loss following a decision to outsource its output.
    4. The sale of the entity's entire operations in Latin America, from which it now withdraws completely.
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    • D. The sale of the entity's entire operations in Latin America, from which it now withdraws completely.
    A disposal is reported in discontinued operations only where it represents a strategic shift that has or will have a major effect on the entity's operations and financial results. Disposing of a major geographical area is one of the stated examples.
  4. السؤال 4

    المادة: المراجعة وخدمات التأكيد

    An auditor confirms year-end accounts receivable directly with customers. Which assertion does this MOST directly address?

    1. Existence
    2. Completeness
    3. Valuation and allocation
    4. Rights and obligations
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    • A. Existence
    Confirming receivables with customers provides independent evidence that the recorded balances are real, supporting existence. It does not establish completeness, valuation, or rights.
  5. السؤال 5

    المادة: المراجعة وخدمات التأكيد

    An accountant is associated with the unaudited financial statements of an issuer without auditing or reviewing them. What is required?

    1. A review report, since the accountant read the statements
    2. No report, since the accountant performed no engagement
    3. A disclaimer of opinion, with each page marked "unaudited"
    4. An adverse opinion, since no audit evidence was obtained
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    • C. A disclaimer of opinion, with each page marked "unaudited"
    A disclaimer of opinion is issued. The accountant must read the statements for obvious errors, the disclaimer may accompany or be placed directly on the statements, and each page must be clearly marked "unaudited." An adverse opinion requires audit work and a conclusion that the statements are materially misstated. A review report requires a review to have been performed. Issuing nothing would leave the accountant associated with statements without any communication.
  6. السؤال 6

    المادة: المراجعة وخدمات التأكيد

    An entity's financial statements omit disclosures required by the framework, and the auditor concludes the omission is material and pervasive. What opinion is expressed?

    1. A qualified opinion, omitted disclosures being confined by their nature to the notes to the statements.
    2. An adverse opinion, the omitted disclosures being a misstatement whose effects are pervasive.
    3. A disclaimer of opinion, the auditor being unable to report where required information is not before the reader.
    4. An unmodified opinion, provided the auditor supplies the substance of the omitted disclosure in the report.
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    • B. An adverse opinion, the omitted disclosures being a misstatement whose effects are pervasive.
    Inadequate disclosure is a departure from the applicable framework and therefore a misstatement. Where the effect is material and pervasive the result is an adverse opinion; where material but not pervasive, a qualified opinion. The qualified opinion option assumes omitted disclosures can never be pervasive. The disclaimer applies the evidence branch. The unmodified opinion option leaves an adverse situation reported as unmodified.
  7. السؤال 7

    المادة: الضرائب والأنظمة

    On Monday, Wren offers to sell Cole her camera for $300, saying nothing about how long the offer lasts. On Wednesday, before Cole responds, Wren sells the camera to someone else and tells Cole, 'Never mind.' Can Cole still accept?

    1. No - because the price was stated
    2. Yes - offers cannot be revoked
    3. Yes - Cole has a reasonable time no matter what
    4. No - Wren effectively revoked the offer before Cole accepted
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    • D. No - Wren effectively revoked the offer before Cole accepted
    No. An offeror may REVOKE an ordinary offer any time before acceptance, and the revocation is effective when communicated. Once Wren tells Cole 'never mind,' the offer is revoked. Why the other choices are wrong: Ordinary offers can be revoked any time before acceptance. A reasonable time to accept does not survive a valid revocation. A stated price does not make an offer irrevocable.
  8. السؤال 8

    المادة: الضرائب والأنظمة

    By mutual agreement, a creditor releases the original debtor and accepts a new party who agrees to take over the debt. This substitution is a:

    1. Assignment only
    2. Anticipatory breach
    3. Novation
    4. Accord and satisfaction
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    • C. Novation
    A NOVATION substitutes a new party (or new contract) for an existing one, with all parties' consent, releasing the original obligor and discharging the original duty. Why the other choices are wrong: Assignment transfers rights; this substitutes a new obligor by mutual consent (a novation). Accord and satisfaction settles a disputed claim by substituted performance, not by swapping debtors. No repudiation occurred, so there is no anticipatory breach.
  9. السؤال 9

    المادة: الضرائب والأنظمة

    After an unagreed examination, the '30-day letter' offers the taxpayer:

    1. A final assessment that must be paid
    2. The right to an Appeals conference within 30 days
    3. 90 days to petition the Tax Court
    4. An automatic refund
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    • B. The right to an Appeals conference within 30 days
    The 30-day letter proposes adjustments and offers the taxpayer the opportunity to request a conference with the IRS Appeals Office within 30 days. Why the other choices are wrong: The 30-day letter is not a final assessment. The 90-day Tax Court period follows the deficiency notice, not the 30-day letter. It does not produce an automatic refund.
  10. السؤال 10

    المادة: الامتثال والتخطيط الضريبي

    Charitable contributions that exceed the applicable AGI percentage limits in the current year may generally be carried forward for how many years?

    1. One year
    2. Three years
    3. Indefinitely
    4. Five years
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    • D. Five years
    Excess charitable contributions carry forward for up to five years, retaining their character (cash or capital gain property) for applying the percentage limits. They are not lost at year end, are not limited to a one-year carryforward, and do not carry forward indefinitely. The five-year window is the key rule.
  11. السؤال 11

    المادة: الامتثال والتخطيط الضريبي

    Which feature describes the federal income tax treatment of a health savings account (HSA) used for qualified medical expenses?

    1. Deductible contributions but fully taxable withdrawals
    2. Nondeductible contributions but tax-free withdrawals
    3. Currently taxable earnings each year
    4. Deductible contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free qualified withdrawals
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    • D. Deductible contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free qualified withdrawals
    An HSA offers a deduction for contributions, tax-free growth inside the account, and tax-free distributions for qualified medical expenses, a combination sometimes called a triple tax benefit. It is not taxed on qualified withdrawals, contributions are not nondeductible, and earnings are not currently taxed. The combined exclusions distinguish it.
  12. السؤال 12

    المادة: تحليل الأعمال وإعداد التقارير

    Risk capacity differs from risk appetite in that risk capacity represents:

    1. The risk the entity chooses to accept, while appetite is the maximum it can bear
    2. The maximum amount of risk the entity is ABLE to absorb given its capital, liquidity, and operational resilience, while appetite is the amount it CHOOSES to accept
    3. A regulatory minimum level of risk-taking
    4. The portion of risk transferred to insurers
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    • B. The maximum amount of risk the entity is ABLE to absorb given its capital, liquidity, and operational resilience, while appetite is the amount it CHOOSES to accept

    Answer: capacity is the maximum risk the entity is ABLE to bear; appetite is what it CHOOSES to accept. A sound program sets appetite comfortably inside capacity.

    The reversed definition is the classic distractor, and capacity is neither a regulatory floor nor the insured portion.

  13. السؤال 13

    المادة: تحليل الأعمال وإعداد التقارير

    An incremental (differential) cost is the:

    1. Difference in total cost between two alternatives
    2. Total cost of the chosen alternative
    3. Cost that was incurred last period
    4. Portion of fixed cost allocated to each unit
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    • A. Difference in total cost between two alternatives

    Answer: the difference in total cost between alternatives - the amount by which costs change if one option is chosen over another, the core quantity in every marginal decision.

    Total cost of one option, last period's (sunk) cost, and allocated unit fixed cost are not differential measures.

  14. السؤال 14

    المادة: نظم المعلومات والرقابة

    Prepito Co.'s management approves its cybersecurity efforts and prioritizes them based on organizational risk. However, cybersecurity policies exist only within individual departments and have not been established organization-wide. Prepito is aware of risks associated with its suppliers but does not act on them consistently or formally. Which NIST CSF Tier best describes Prepito?

    1. Tier 1 (Partial)
    2. Tier 2 (Risk-Informed)
    3. Tier 3 (Repeatable)
    4. Tier 4 (Adaptive)
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    • B. Tier 2 (Risk-Informed)
    At Tier 2 (Risk-Informed), prioritization is based on organizational risk and management approves cybersecurity efforts, but policies may be isolated rather than established organization-wide. The organization is aware of supplier risks yet does not respond to them consistently or formally, matching every fact given. Tier 1 is incorrect because it involves ad hoc, reactive practices without risk-based prioritization or management approval. Tier 3 requires formal, documented, organization-wide policies with consistent monitoring of supplier risks. Tier 4 adds continuous improvement and active adaptation to evolving threats.
  15. السؤال 15

    المادة: نظم المعلومات والرقابة

    Under the HIPAA Security Rule, which of the following standards is classified as an administrative safeguard?

    1. Security incident procedures
    2. Device and media controls
    3. Person or entity authentication
    4. Facility access controls
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    • A. Security incident procedures
    HIPAA requires administrative, physical, and technical safeguards. Administrative safeguards include security management processes, assigned security responsibility, workforce security, security awareness and training, security incident procedures, contingency plans, and evaluation. Security incident procedures are therefore administrative. Device and media controls are physical safeguards, along with facility access controls, workstation use, and workstation security. Person or entity authentication is a technical safeguard, alongside access control, audit controls, integrity controls, and transmission security. Facility access controls are a physical safeguard.

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